Test bank chap 29 - Detalles

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Which of the following microbial groups is MOST resistant to desiccation due to their cell wall? A) gram-positive B) gram-negative C) mycoplasmas D) viruses

The causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis, also known as "strep throat," is A) Streptococcus pyogenes. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Streptococcus lactis.

Impetigo is due to an infection caused by A) Staphylococcus aureus but not Streptococcus pyogenes. B) Streptococcus pyogenes but not Staphylococcus aureus. C) either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. D) neither Staphylococcus aureus nor Streptococcus pyogenes.

Rheumatic fever is A) an autoimmune disease. B) a poststaphylococcal disease. C) triggered by cell-surface antigens on Staphylococcus aureus cells that are similar to heart valve and joint antigens. D) caused by human papillomavirus.

Influenza A virus can be identified by which of the following surface glycoproteins? A) HA B) NA C) both HA and NA D) M protein

Encapsulated strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are particularly pathogenic, because they A) produce exotoxin A. B) produce exotoxin B. C) are potentially very invasive. D) produce M protein surface antigens

A frequent symptom of the common cold is A) nasal discharge. B) fever. C) headache. D) diarrhea.

Which of the following is a cure for mumps? A) a vaccine B) an antibiotic C) host antibodies D) an antiviral

Once a person has been infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the individual A) acquires transient immunity, which prevents subsequent infection for about a year. B) acquires no immunity, and thus could be reinfected immediately. C) requires immunization by a vaccine. D) requires immunization by an antiserum.

The Spanish flu of 1918 was caused by an ________ influenza virus. A) H2N1 B) H5N1 C) H1N1 D) H2N2

Which of the following statements about chlamydial infections is TRUE? A) Chlamydial diseases are not reportable diseases. B) Chlamydial diseases are less prevalent than gonorrhea. C) Chlamydial diseases can lead to acute complications. D) All of the statements are true.

The CD4 molecule is A) an HIV surface glycoprotein. B) a cell-surface protein receptor for HIV. C) found only on T-helper cells. D) an HIV surface glycoprotein that is found only on T-helper cells.

Which of the following drugs, chemotherapeutic agents against HIV, inhibits reverse transcriptase? A) ampligen B) azidothymidine C) alpha interferon D) soluble CD4

Which statement is TRUE about Streptococcus pneumoniae and the lung infection it causes? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae can spread from the focus of infection as a bacteremia. B) Penicillin and erythromycin are the "last chance" drugs for treatment of streptococcal pneumonia. C) Infection with any strain of encapsulated virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae provides long-lasting immunity to all encapsulated virulent strains. D) Streptococcal pneumonia is not as serious as most people think; if left untreated, it usually runs its course in about a week to ten days.

Which of the following is/are used to identify methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus? A) selective media B) differential media C) PCR D) selective media, differential media, and PCR

Which of the following is the causal agent of gastric ulcers? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Escherichia coli O157:H7 C) Helicobacter pylori D) Vibrio cholerae

The diphtheria component of the DTaP vaccine is a(n) A) toxin. B) toxoid. C) antitoxin. D) antitoxoid.

Which of the following is NOT a staphylococcal disease? A) acne B) boils C) strep throat D) meningitis

Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH) is an antibiotic used in the treatment of tuberculosis. It affects the synthesis of A) mycolic acid. B) linoleic acid. C) globular proteins of the cell membrane. D) DNA transcription.

How is the syphilis spirochete initially transmitted? A) penetration of unbroken skin B) through the eyes C) from mother to child D) through tiny breaks in the skin epithelial layer

The single most important physical sign of primary syphilis is A) the chancre. B) a skin rash. C) paralysis. D) an acute eye infection.

Tuberculoid Hansen's disease is caused by the pathogen A) Listeria monocytogenes. B) Mycobacterium leprae. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D) either Mycobacterium leprae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Of the following, which is the MOST common AIDS-associated opportunistic disease? A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia B) cryptosporidiosis C) histoplasmosis D) cryptococcosis

Which of the following statements is TRUE about HIV infections? A) The viral nucleocapsid of the virus enters the host cell when the viral and host membranes fuse. B) T-helper cells are greatly reduced in number. C) The cDNA can integrate into the host chromosome. D) All of these statements are true.

Serious acute cases of diphtheria are treated with antibiotics and A) diphtheria antitoxin. B) diphtheria toxin. C) diphtheria toxoid. D) diphtheria antitoxin, diphtheria toxin, and diphtheria toxoid.

The unique antigenic determinants of the 90 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae are found A) on the cell-surface M proteins. B) on the capsular polysaccharides. C) in the bacterial cell wall. D) in the inclusions in the periplasmic space.

The DTaP vaccine contains A) purified bacterial DNA. B) bacterial endotoxin derivatives. C) heat-killed Bordetella pertussis cells. D) diphtheria toxoid.

Which of the following are group A Streptococcus (GAS)? A) Streptococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pneumonia C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Streptococcus viridans

Erythromycin is put in the eyes of newborns specifically to prevent A) syphilis. B) gonorrhea. C) a chlamydial infection. D) ocular herpes.

Which of the following does NOT apply to bacterial pathogens affecting the respiratory tract? A) Humans are the only reservoir for most bacterial respiratory pathogens. B) Most are normally transmitted person to person. C) Some often initiate secondary infections that can be life threatening. D) Most respiratory bacterial pathogens do not respond to antibiotic therapy.

The presence of gram-positive diplococci in a sputum sample most likely indicates an infection of A) Streptococcus pyogenes. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D) Bordetella pertussis.

Whooping cough is frequently observed in A) elderly residents of nursing homes. B) individuals with compromised immunity. C) children under 6 months of age. D) health care providers.

Which disease causes over 1.6 million deaths per year worldwide, which is approximately 11% of all deaths related to infectious diseases? A) diphtheria B) whooping cough C) pneumococcal pneumonia D) tuberculosis

Which disease test will show a false positive when immunized with the BCG attenuated virus? A) tuberculosis B) whooping cough C) diphtheria D) pneumococcal pneumonia

The most prevalent human infectious diseases are caused by A) bacteria. B) viruses. C) fungi. D) protozoans.

The most common infectious disease(s) is/are A) gonorrhea. B) influenza. C) hepatitis. D) colds.

Pus formation in skin lesions caused by Staphylococcus aureus infections is in part due to production of A) coagulase. B) hemolysins. C) leukocidin. D) catalase.

Infectious hepatitis is caused by infection with hepatitis ________ virus. A) A B) B C) C D) E

Which organism causes the highest number of sexually transmitted diseases each year? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Treponema pallidum C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Hepatitis B and C are transmitted via the A) oral route. B) parenteral route. C) dermal route. D) ophthalmic route.

A positive tuberculin test means a patient A) has active disease. B) has been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) has a current inappropriate infection. D) has active disease, has been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or has a current inappropriate infection.

The inflammatory response to Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection results in the production of a lesion called a(n) A) pseudomembrane. B) chancre. C) lesion. D) pustule.

Another name for pertussis is A) the kissing disease. B) shingles. C) whooping cough. D) yellow fever.

The causative agent of Hansen's disease is A) Mycobacterium marinum. B) Mycobacterium ulcerans. C) Mycobacterium hansen. D) Mycobacterium leprae.

Staphylococcus aureus produces ________, an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin around the bacterial cells. A) coagulase B) collagenase C) lipase D) M protein

Which of the following is NOT a sign of scarlet fever? A) fever B) rash C) sore throat D) impetigo

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by distinct strains of ________. A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2) C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Haemophilus ducreyi

Nongonococcal urethritis may be caused by the protozoan ________. A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria gonorrhoaea C) Haemophilus ducreyi D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Several strains of ________ cause genital warts and cervical cancer. A) human papillomavirus B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) HIV

The HPV vaccine has been recommended for A) females 11-26. B) females 26-45. C) males. D) males and females 11-26.

Individuals who have an active case of tuberculosis may spread the disease simply by ________ uninfected individuals. A) coughing near B) shaking hands with C) hugging D) sexual contact with

Transmission of Mycobacterium leprae involves A) direct contact. B) respiratory transmission. C) both direct contact and the respiratory route. D) penetration into unbroken skin.

Meningitis can be caused by A) viral infections. B) bacterial infection. C) fungal infections. D) viral, bacterial, or fungal infections.

Resident staphylococci in the ________ seldom cause disease. A) eyes B) upper respiratory tract C) lungs D) kidneys

Loeffler's medium inhibits the growth of MOST organisms and is commonly used to cultivate A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) Mycobacterium leprae. D) Staphylococcus aureus.

The pink-red rash of scarlet fever may be caused by streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, C, and E, which are coded for on a lysogenic bacteriophage.

Infections by "flesh-eating bacteria" can occur when exotoxins A, B, C, and E and the bacterial surface M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes act as superantigens.

The organisms that cause pneumococcal pneumonia are rarely found as a part of the normal flora of healthy adults.

Reassortment of the genes of the influenza virus is facilitated by the fact that the genome is segmented.

More than one type of influenza virus can infect a given cell at a given time.

The prevalence of penicillin-resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is localized almost exclusively in North America and western Europe.

A patient with AIDS often dies of a variety of infections caused by opportunistic microorganisms.

Salt in mannitol salt agar inhibits the growth of Staphylococcus aureus

MOST of the early cases of toxic shock syndrome in women were associated with use of highly absorbent tampons.

The immune response is as important as or even more important than antibiotics in the elimination of Bordetella pertussis from the body.

The influenza viral envelope is unique because it contains only one type of protein

Chickenpox, caused by a herpesvirus, results in a systemic papular rash that quickly heals.

In an HIV infection the TH cells and macrophages are NOT commonly infected

A sudden onset of a headache, vomiting, and a stiff neck are all symptoms of meningococcal meningitis.

Viral hepatitis can result in acute kidney disease, followed by chronic kidney disease

Colds are the MOST infectious viral diseases.

The availability of rapid antigen detection (RAD) systems for pathogenic streptococci has eliminated the need to culture Streptococcus pyogenes

Patients infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in environments where drug resistance is expected or has already been identified usually have to take antibacterial drugs for six months to ensure the infectious agent is completely killed.

Most viral respiratory diseases are highly contagious but not life threatening

The loss of CD4 T-helper cells leads to the overt consequences of an HIV infection

Test bank chap 29

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Test bank chap 29 - Marcador

Test bank chap 29 - Detalles

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